I'm trying to figure out how ijv obstruction could cause "bloating" of vertebral arteries (since they are usually the vessels that bother the RVLM and surrounding nerves). This reminds me of breezing through math until I hit the Calculus wall. My brain just doesn't do anti-derivatives or veins.
Any of you veiniacs care to supply the answer? I'd be grateful for even a "Nope, they are completely unrelated." at this point.