Maybe it is not very quoted today, but this was a breaking new not so long ago. Researchers from Mayo Clinic found four patterns of demyelination. Taken the summary from wikipedia:
Pattern I : The scar presents T-cells and macrophages around blood vessels, with preservation of oligodendrocytes, but no signs of complement system activation
Pattern II : The scar presents T-cells and macrophages around blood vessels, with preservation of oligodendrocytes, as before, but also signs of complement system activation can be found.
Pattern III : The scars are diffuse with inflammation, distal oligodendrogliopathy and microglial activation. There is also loss of myelin-associated glycoprotein (MAG). The scars do not surround the blood vessels, and in fact, a rim of preserved myelin appears around the vessels. There is evidence of partial remyelinization and oligodendrocyte apoptosis
Pattern IV : The scar presents sharp borders and oligodendrocyte degeneration, with a rim of normal appearing white matter. There is a lack of oligodendrocytes in the center of the scar. There is no complement activation or MAG loss.
It is reported that the two first patterns look like an autoimmune attack and the other two like cell apoptosis. Pattern IV is reported to be associated to PPMS. Therefore I suppose that being true the CCSVI theory and this model, a CCSVI lesion would be associated with Pattern III.
Does this makes sense? Any other thoughts?
Please fight against the MS section of the new ICD 11 at http://apps.who.int/classifications/icd11/browse/f/en