Thanks a lot gkalman,
please excuse my bad english i am not used to write in english.
First there is a significant unexplained decrease in all groups of the fingolimod study after day 630.
I was very surprised, when reading the studies, about this high significant differences between the study groups. It seemed to me as there were two different kind of MS. But if you look at the EDSS Scores you cant see this significant differences. So obviously the degree of severity should not differ.
Another point I was surprised was the fact that the T1 pictures showed an average lesion count of about 0.7 in both studies with a standard deviation of +-2 despite that is statistical nonsense. This means to me that the majority of the partitipants had no lesions at all at the T1 scan. Isnt one of the diagnosis criteria for MS in general the presence of lesions?
There are two problems right now for me in interpretation of the results.
The quantity of both studies is so big, there shouldnt happen a such great difference in MS population between the studies. The inclusion and exclusion criterias are not so significant different to explain this differences in relapsing rate.
And what does it mean that there are almost no T1 Lesions to be found?
There is a third study
Fingolimod versus Betaferon I.
If I compare the results of both Fingolimod Studies, does the comparison of the placebo group after 1 year with the Betaferon group after one year suggests that there is no effect of Betaferon at all?