This Is MS Multiple Sclerosis Community: Knowledge & Support

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Why do doctors have to use such big words lol...Here is what my first mri says:Can someone explain these to me?

1st MRI June 20/2009

There are a few T2 hyperintensities involving the periventricular and subcortial white matter of the cerebral hemisphere bilaterally. There are no hyperintensities seen to involve the corpus callosum or infratentorially. At this point the appearance is non specific and a definite diagnosis of MS can not be made as the appearance may relate to changes in ischemic demyelination(what does this mean??)


Here is the followup done 8 months later: There continue to be bilateral periventricular and subcortail white matter hyperintensities, again suspicious but not definite for underlying demylenation from MS. The appearance has not signifcantly changed since previous mri. There are no areas of pathological contrast enhancement following IV gadolinium administration. Again there are no lesions within the corpus callosum or posterior fossa.

One radiologist told me that if there are no lesions in the corpus callosum or posterior fossa that you cant have MS...is that true?

What do you think these mean? My first episode was rh weakness and slurred speech but it was so mild the first neurologist didnt think i had the symptons.....this weeks relapse 1 1/2 yrs later is left hand numbness and left foot slight numbness....Please help....One neurologist says I should begin drugs, theother says wait and see but they both conclude that it is MS...is it or isnt it???

Today My GP just said that until the mri says its MS dont believe it...what can you tell from these MRIS? Are there anyone with radiologist backgrounds or enough experience in these that they can give me piece of mind?

Hi, I think it means there could be demylination from lack of oxygen due to blood vessel issues. Basically I think it is saying the demylination could be from a condition like vasculitis or blood vessels not allowing proper blood flow.
If there is no enhancement it can mean at the time the scan was done the blood brain barrier was not comprimised (which happens a lot in MS)

(I am no dr though so if someone has a better idea please feel free to add!!)

This is what makes this disease so confusing. Do I have MS? Do I have something else? Who do I believe? Reason is the neuro doc wants to start drugs in 1 month and im not sure if thats a good idea if i "dont"have anything

Its not just down to the MRI.
If you have had more than 1 attack, have attacks affecting different parts of your body, then it will lead to a diagnosis of MS (look at the Mcdonald criteria) The neuro takes everything into consideration to build the picture.

When I had a big relapse they could not decide if I had MS or Vasculitis but after the lumber punch came back positive and I had another attack they told me they were certain it was MS.

I only had one periventricular MRI lesion that never changed, but the clinical picture plus evidence of prior optic neuritis was enough to get the MS diagnosis.

If both neurologists are concluding it is MS, can you find out from them what the basis is for that diagnosis?

There saying that I had 2 separate attacks within 2 yrs which is enough for a diagnosis. I guess i dont want to believe them. I asked for another mri and they said no....wonder why. I just dont want to start drugs if i dont need them but at the same point i dont want another relapse if i can help it...im just confused!