Any opinions would be helpful.
The symptom that started this all was I lost a good portion of the sight in one of my eyes (optical atrophy) and the other eye also has appearance of being affected. This was a number or years ago and I don't have any other significant symptoms. There has been speculation on whether my eyesight is getting worse but if it is, this is very gradual. Also, now that I'm hitting my 40s just age could be affecting my eyes as well.
I've been procrastinating and the boyfriend finally made me follow up on this. The neurologist sent me for an MRI but I got the feeling from him was he sent me for the MRI thinking nothing would show up.
The dr said the MRI showed I had MS lesions and he believed this to be the cause of my sight loss. I specifically asked if I had MS then and he very firmly wouldn't give me a diagnosis of MS though. So then I specifically asked what else could possibly have cause these lesions that showed up in my MRI and he said only MS would have caused these lesions.
He is now sending me for a VEP test for a baseline so we can measure if my sight is gradually getting worse or not and I have a 6 month follow up appointment scheduled.
I asked if this would then likely get worse in the future and he told me not to worry about the future - I could get hit by a bus tomorrow so why worry about what might happen in the future.
Grrr - I am really sooo confused here. Does anyone know what any of this could really mean?