Firstly, thanks for providing such a great forum and up-to-date information. My husband has RRMS and I am just getting up to speed with CCSVI. I have read all the recent articles to get the background information. But what I can't find is any info about why the CCSVI can cause RR. If CCSVI exists then why are there periods of no inflammatory activity? ie the remittance phase. My husband had 10 years between an episode of optic neuritis and the second episode which lead to the diagnosis and it is the first question he asked when I was explaining to him about CCSVI. (FYI, I am English, he speaks German and some English and so I am doing the research and then translating it for him and trying to convince him it sounds like a very exciting prospect...)
Can someone please direct me to a paper that explains this or at least gives more info. I don't mind the original article.