Please allow me to explain my confusion.
the recommended LDN intake of 4.5 mg’s total per day
and further down states...
Neuroimmunotherapy of untreatable metastatic solid tumors with subcutaneous low-dose interleukin-2, melatonin and naltrexone: modulation of interleukin-2-induced antitumor immunity by blocking the opioid system (Lissoni P et. al., Neuroendocrinol Lett. 2002 Aug;23(4):341-4).
with 'low-dose" and "naltrexone" in italics to highlight them as though they go together.
However, upon reading the abstract, I discovered that the naltrexone dosage used in this study was 100mg every 2 days and that the "low-dose" apparently refers to treatment with IL-2. Clearly, 100mg every 2 days is above and beyond the 4.5mg/day dosage cited above for LDN.
Perhaps I'm confused, but I don't see how this study is in support of LDN if these numbers are indeed correct.
I'm also confused about another point. The abstract for the above study states...
a cancer neuroimmunotherapy with IL-2 plus both MLT and NTX to activate TH1 and suppress TH2 cells respectively
This statement appears to further suggest that this particular study may not be relevant for the treatment of MS. It has been my understanding that activation of Th1 immune responses, such as was done with IFN-gamma, actually worsen MS and that activation of Th2 immune responses help MS. Activation of Th1 may be good for cancer, as this study and others have demonstrated, however, I don't believe that it's good for MS.
I would like to make it clear that my post is in no way meant to be critical of ThisIsMS as they have provided a great site and venue for the exchange of information. My post is made only with the hopes of clearing up any confusion regarding the observations I have made.