I'm a young woman living in Europe (English is my third language).
I developed mild double vision in mid-February 2007, two days after a hepatitis A vaccination, which led to a neurology consult, spinal tap (positive) and CT (negative) on day 4, MRI (multiple T2 lesions) on day 5 and "probably MS"-diagnosis on day 6...
After the steroid course that started on day 7, I recovered completely.
Otherwise I was and am in excellent health, I never got seriously ill, I get a cold once every 4 years or so, have no other chronic diseases, am not feeling excessively tired or something, nothing at all.
I'm still in doubt about the diagnosis, but I insisted on starting a therapy against this possible MS. I started with Rebif 44 mcg in March. After some more research I found the Wheldon protocol and added Doxycycline 200 mg daily and Azithromycine 250 mg 3 times a week in April, and started with the first Metronidazole pulse in May, all thanks to this wonderful site.
I didn't experience any relapses in the past six months, which I am very grateful for, and I can handle the few Rebif-side effects very well (mainly just some red and dry spots on my legs). But I didn't experience any die-off reactions from the Wheldon protocol either, which made me think: is this mainly because my bacterial load is still rather small in the beginning of the disease, or is there another reason?
Could the fact that my first episode began after a vaccination with an inactivated virus (Havrix) reveal a personal susceptibility for a viral pathogen rather than a bacterial pathogen? I also noted that this was a repeat vaccination after 10 years, which would explain the presence of previously formed IgG-antibodies (not IgM), elevated IgG-index and possibly even oligoclonal bands... (they still don't know what those bands stand for, right?) I also tested positive for antibodies to Epstein-Barr virus, measles virus, varicella zoster virus and the bacteria Mycoplasma Pneumoniae. Borrelia antibodies (Lyme disease) came out negative.
Considering my history and the absence of die-off reactions to the Wheldon CAP, should I add an antiviral to my regime? Which one would that be: Amantadine (Symmetrel, Amantan)? Acyclovir (Valtrex)? Oseltamivir (Tamiflu), or something else?