can someone explain my MRI?
Posted: Tue Mar 08, 2011 10:18 am
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Why do doctors have to use such big words lol...Here is what my first mri says:Can someone explain these to me?
1st MRI June 20/2009
There are a few T2 hyperintensities involving the periventricular and subcortial white matter of the cerebral hemisphere bilaterally. There are no hyperintensities seen to involve the corpus callosum or infratentorially. At this point the appearance is non specific and a definite diagnosis of MS can not be made as the appearance may relate to changes in ischemic demyelination(what does this mean??)
Here is the followup done 8 months later: There continue to be bilateral periventricular and subcortail white matter hyperintensities, again suspicious but not definite for underlying demylenation from MS. The appearance has not signifcantly changed since previous mri. There are no areas of pathological contrast enhancement following IV gadolinium administration. Again there are no lesions within the corpus callosum or posterior fossa.
One radiologist told me that if there are no lesions in the corpus callosum or posterior fossa that you cant have MS...is that true?
What do you think these mean? My first episode was rh weakness and slurred speech but it was so mild the first neurologist didnt think i had the symptons.....this weeks relapse 1 1/2 yrs later is left hand numbness and left foot slight numbness....Please help....One neurologist says I should begin drugs, theother says wait and see but they both conclude that it is MS...is it or isnt it???
Today My GP just said that until the mri says its MS dont believe it...what can you tell from these MRIS? Are there anyone with radiologist backgrounds or enough experience in these that they can give me piece of mind?
Why do doctors have to use such big words lol...Here is what my first mri says:Can someone explain these to me?
1st MRI June 20/2009
There are a few T2 hyperintensities involving the periventricular and subcortial white matter of the cerebral hemisphere bilaterally. There are no hyperintensities seen to involve the corpus callosum or infratentorially. At this point the appearance is non specific and a definite diagnosis of MS can not be made as the appearance may relate to changes in ischemic demyelination(what does this mean??)
Here is the followup done 8 months later: There continue to be bilateral periventricular and subcortail white matter hyperintensities, again suspicious but not definite for underlying demylenation from MS. The appearance has not signifcantly changed since previous mri. There are no areas of pathological contrast enhancement following IV gadolinium administration. Again there are no lesions within the corpus callosum or posterior fossa.
One radiologist told me that if there are no lesions in the corpus callosum or posterior fossa that you cant have MS...is that true?
What do you think these mean? My first episode was rh weakness and slurred speech but it was so mild the first neurologist didnt think i had the symptons.....this weeks relapse 1 1/2 yrs later is left hand numbness and left foot slight numbness....Please help....One neurologist says I should begin drugs, theother says wait and see but they both conclude that it is MS...is it or isnt it???
Today My GP just said that until the mri says its MS dont believe it...what can you tell from these MRIS? Are there anyone with radiologist backgrounds or enough experience in these that they can give me piece of mind?