Why another MRI??

[ebrownkirkland]

Over the last 45 days or so my husband has had an MRI, which revealed three lesions (one was 1 cm), an LP which revealed high protein (69) as well as one o-band, and two separate appointments with an opthamologist, both of which resulted in normal test results (with the exception of a small cataract in one eye). Now they are sending him back for ANOTHER MRI of the brain. So my question is WHY are they doing this second MRI? I realize that LPs have to be done within 30 days of an MRI so that's all I can figure is that's why he's having another MRI is so they can do another LP? It just doesn't seem reasonable that they would find different results of the MRI since it was done about 45 days ago.

Some background: he began seeing a neurologist because he was having severe migraines that caused him to go blind in one eye for up to two days. These went on for about two years and it got to where he was having them weekly, although he hasn't had once since New Year's Eve. He has also experienced some cognitive issues and fatigue but that could be chalked up to stress (he has a high-stress, demanding job). Additionally, he has an urge to go to the bathroom more frequently than he used to, but a urologist informed him about a year ago that that was normal for men as they age (he is 43). He has not mentioned the cognitive issues or the bladder thing to the neurologist. He does not have mobility issues.

Any insight on why a neurologist would ask for another MRI so soon after having one would be greatly appreciated.

[Snoopy]

The MRI as well as a Lumbar Puncture is used in the diagnostic process for many different conditions/diseases. The MRI has different protocols depending on the reason it's being ordered. It is very possible your husband's Neurologist is ordering the MRI and using a different protocol to look for something that isn't MS. The only way to know why a MRI is being ordered so soon after the last is for your husband to contact his Neurology Office and ask.

[jimmylegs]

if they did the first one without contrast, the second could be with a contrast agent. if they can show via contrast that lesion a is active and lesion b is not ie is older, that's 'dissemination in time'. which is one of the dx criteria for ms. one of many, and that's not to mention about 80 other things they have to rule out!